Is it a sin or forbidden to follow any of the parts of the Law of Moses?
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In John 7:53-8:11, Jesus condemns fulfilling the Law of Moses when it requires that a crowd stone an adulteress to death. This seems to imply (if these passages are authentic, which is in question) that in some cases fulfilling the Law of Moses is now sinful.
Even if this passage is not authentic, there are parts of the Law of Moses that now seem rather barbaric. These laws requiring the killing your children if they are stubborn and rebellious (Deuteronomy 21:18-21), killing a rape victim for not putting up sufficient resistance (Deuteronomy 22:23-24), and killing those who commit blasphemy or believe in a different religion (Leviticus 24:16; Deuteronomy 13:5-10 respectively).
Are there some cases where it is sinful or forbidden to follow any of the laws in the Old Testament, now that Jesus has fulfilled these laws (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 2:15)?
A very good and very similar question is: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/456/to-what-extent-does-the-law-of-moses-still-apply and also:
https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/15/do-we-have-to-obey-the-laws-of-the-bible-if-so-what-laws
Even though these are questions that I'm interested in and still find somewhat confusing, in this question I'm looking for additional insights (scripture or scholarly) about whether it is now sinful or forbidden to follow **any** of the Laws of Moses (including the ceremonial laws for which we are no longer bound). Answers meant to address **which** of these laws are forbidden are better suited for these questions.
Asked by user1331
Nov 11, 2012, 07:20 PM
Last activity: Apr 7, 2020, 01:57 PM
Last activity: Apr 7, 2020, 01:57 PM