Meaning of μαλακοί in 1 Corinthians 6:9–10

In **1 Corinthians 6:9–10**, Saint Paul lists behaviors and types of people who “will not inherit the kingdom of God.” The relevant portion reads: > Μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται > οὔτε πλεονέκται οὔτε κλέπται οὔτε μέθυσοι οὐ λοίδοροι οὐχ ἅρπαγες βασιλείαν θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσιν. A common English rendering is: > Do not be deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor *malakoi*, nor homosexuals, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. My question concerns the meaning of **μαλακοί (*malakoi*)** in verse 9. Modern translations vary widely. Some render it as: * “effeminate _men_” (KJV and ASV) * “male prostitutes” (NLT and ISV) * “catamites” (NKJV footnote) * “homosexuals” (NKJV) * “boy prostitutes” (NAB) * “passive homosexual partners.” (NET) The NIV, NASB, CSB, and ESV seem not to translate it at all. Here is an excerpt from the NIV for an example: _"the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers [malakoi missing here] nor men who have sex with men"_. This is quite strange considering it is found in the Greek editions of Nestle-Aland, Westcott-Hort, and Robinson-Pierpont. Regarding translating *malakoi* as _"homosexuals"_ (as the NKJV does), the term immediately following (*arsenokoitai*) is understood to refer to male same-sex relations (from *arsen* meaning *"male"* and *koite* meaning *"bed"*). Therefore, translating *malakoi* as homosexual seems redundant. When consulting lexicons such as **LSJ** and **Abbott-Smith**, I primarily find meanings related to **“soft”**, either physically or metaphorically, such as “morally weak” or “lacking self-control.” These sources do not clearly support some of the more specific sexual translations. Strong’s Concordance mentions the term as a euphemism for a catamite but does not provide a cited source. Another interesting footnote is that Saint Jerome (chief translator of the Latin Vulgate) seems to have translated this very literally as _molles_ or _"soft"_; whereas the Syriac Peshitta uses ܡܚܰܒ݁ܠܶܐ (mḥabble’) meaning _"destroyed"_ (although this word is used to refer to topics as broad as a "deflowered" girl or a miscarried child.) **Question:** What is the most defensible translation or interpretation of *μαλακοί* in 1 Corinthians 6:9 based on lexical evidence and historical usage? How was the term understood in contemporary Greek literature and in early Christian interpretation?