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Why did Herod the great take the Zoroastrian Magi seriously?

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Based on the definition and translation of magi or “wise men” discussed in this article: https://www.mondaymorningmemo.com/magi-explained/ Matthew records the following: “After Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of King Herod, wise men from the east arrived unexpectedly in Jerusalem, saying, ‘Where is He who has been born King of the Jews?’” (Matt 2:1–2) If the Magi were indeed an eastern priestly or scholarly class, their arrival in Judea would not have been merely a religious curiosity but potentially a significant foreign and political and pagan presence. This seems especially relevant in light of sources such as: https://www.khouse.org/personal_update/articles/2021/history-magi https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2022/12/22/who-were-the-magi/ which argue that the Magi held, or were associated with, considerable political as well as religious influence. Given this background, it appears unusual that King Herod would be so welcoming to these foreigners. Even more striking is that he seems to take their claim seriously enough to become “deeply troubled” (Matt 2:3), rather than dismissing it outright. At the same time, the old testament describes God's influence in the eastern world. For example, Isaiah explicitly names Cyrus of Persia as God’s chosen instrument (Isa 44:28–45:1), and Daniel served in high office under Babylonian and Persian rulers and prophesied about a coming anointed ruler. My question is: Am I correct to conclude that God’s influence was already well established in the eastern regions through earlier prophets (such as Isaiah and Daniel), such that even King Herod would have regarded the Magi as credible or divinely significant figures? Or does the Matthean text indicate that Herod’s response was primarily political rather than theological?
Asked by Hackerman (69 rep)
Jan 15, 2026, 05:05 AM