Is Sin defined by Scripture or by society over time?

Are certain actions considered sins more due to societal norms than actual biblical principles? For instance, imagine it's the 1400s, and a newly discovered psychedelic plant is found. Since it’s just been discovered, I try it and experience hallucinations and a sense of emotional warmth (essentially getting "high"). At the time, no one knows the long-term effects, but by the late 1600s, it’s classified as a drug. Would I now be considered a sinner because, according to 1600s societal standards, the plant is a drug, and drug users are deemed sinful? This would imply that what I had been doing was sinful, even though years earlier it wasn’t viewed as such simply because its effects were unknown. One might argue that if the plant distracts me from God, it’s sinful. But what if, instead, getting high from this plant allowed me to read and visualize scripture with deeper emotional connection and understanding? How would this align with the idea of sin, especially when societal perceptions shift over time?