How do liberal Protestants translate the word ‘ἀρσενοκοίτης’ in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10?

For the purpose of this question, assume a liberal Protestant perspective which does *not* consider homosexuality to be inherently sinful. 1 Corinthians 6:9: > Ἢ (Or) οὐκ (not) οἴδατε (do you know) ὅτι (that) ἄδικοι (the unrighteous) θεοῦ (of God) βασιλείαν (kingdom) οὐ (not) κληρονομήσουσιν (will inherit)? Μὴ (Do not) πλανᾶσθε (be deceived): οὔτε (neither) πόρνοι (the sexually immoral) οὔτε (nor) εἰδωλολάτραι (idolaters) οὔτε (nor) μοιχοὶ (adulterers) οὔτε (nor) μαλακοὶ (effeminate/passive partners in sexual immorality) οὔτε (nor) **ἀρσενοκοῖται** (???). > Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor **men who have sex with men**. (NIV) 1 Timothy 1:10: > πόρνοις (for the sexually immoral), **ἀρσενοκοίταις** (???), ἀνδραποδισταῖς (for slave traders), ψεύσταις (for liars), ἐπιόρκοις (for perjurers), καὶ (and) εἴ (if) τι (anything) ἕτερον (else) τῇ (to the) ὑγιαινούσῃ (sound) διδασκαλίᾳ (teaching) ἀντίκειται (is opposed). > For the sexually immoral, for **those practicing homosexuality**, for slave traders and liars and perjurers—and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine. (NIV) --- "ἀρσενοκοίτης" can literally be translated as "male-bedders", i.e. people practicing male homosexuality. However, it would be the [etymological fallacy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etymological_fallacy) to assume this meaning based on no other evidence. My question is: For liberal Protestants who do not consider the practice of homosexuality to be a sin according to God, how is the word "ἀρσενοκοίτης" understood and/or translated into English? Please provide a reference to either the teachings of a mainstream church or a widely accepted apologist. --- I will accept answers from: * The perspective of people who do not view Paul as being the word of God and/or who disregard Paul's writing for any other reason. * The perspsective of people who accept Paul as being the divinely inspired word of God but who do not interpret these passages as saying that homosexuality is always a sin. I will not accept answers from the perspsective of people who believe homosexuality is inherently sinful -- that is not the purpose of this question. I am specifically **not** asking whether, for example, gay sex outside of marriage is a sin, or whether adultery is a sin -- that is out of scope for this question. I *will* accept answers along the lines of "ἀρσενοκοίτης means homosexuality but in the specific context of ...".