Christians following the gospel as per islam

https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40402/does-quran-548-imply-that-allah-wants-jews-to-follow-the-torah-and-christians This post suggests that the given verses in the quran that seemingly show that the gospel is not corrupted actually point to the word given by Jesus and not the current new testament But quran 5:47 states this ""So let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed in it. And those who do not judge by what Allah has revealed are ˹truly˺ the rebellious."" It says that at the time of the prophet , the people of the gospel are to judge by the gospel, but the gospel at the time of the prophet was the more or less the current 4 canonical gospels of the new testament . Is this a wrong reading of the Arabic of the text( as gospel in arabic might more directly related it to the words of Jesus) or does the op make a mistake? I ask this in this exchange because Christians would have a better and less biased understanding of what exactly the gospels indicate here( even tho it's from the islamic pov)