Determining General vs. Effectual Call from Bible verses using the same word "call"

I'm really trying to study the topic of election versus free will. A common theme supporting election is the difference between a general call and an effectual call. But there seems to be no differentiation in the original Greek between one call and another. For example, Matt 22:14 is often cited as a general call. Romans 1:6 is an effectual call. But both verses use the same Greek word for "call" (*κλητοὶ*, *klētoi*). I was hoping that the two theological terms would be based on distinct Greek words, similar to how various meanings of "love" are associated with five different Greek words (*agape*, *eros*, *philia*, etc). My question: who is deciding which verses refer to general vs. effectual? The term was coined by the Westminster Confession of Faith in 1647. But other than that, **is there an objective vs. subjective translation/language standard to which we can scrutinize these verses**? Words matter and I **always** go back to Greek/Hebrew when studying. There are literally tons of examples if you just search your concordance or lexicon for "called."