Why did Pilate use the attribute of Messiah for Jesus?

In an example of exceptional cases, NIV of Mtt 27:17 reads: > When the crowd had gathered, Pilate asked them, “Which one do you want me to release to you: Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?”. < The Gospels sometimes use the nick- names of persons, for instance, Thomas which literally means 'the twin '. Now, Barabbas is a prominent figure in the Passion . The literal meaning of the name is ' Son of the Father, implying that his father was equally or more notorious as a criminal. But, then he was not born a criminal, and the nick-name Barabbas was probably imposed on him after he started showing his true colours! So, what was his given name ? In case Jesus shared his given name with the person nicknamed Barabbas, Pilate in the capacity of the judge in the capital punishment proceedings had to be extremely careful in identifying each of the two convicts before him. Is that the reason why he used the attribute of Messiah for Jesus ? Are there any apocryphal writings or scholarly views on the topic ?