Many references indicate that Paul is quoting Psalm 19:4 when he writes in Romans 10:18 “Their voice … “ (Strong’s 5353). However, the Hebrew noun in Psalm 19:4 (Strong’s 6957) seems to always be translated “line”. Is Paul indicating a line of reasoning, or proof? Or is there history there that is not readily indicated to the lay reader? Do most scholars attribute Paul’s quote to Psalm 19:4?
Asked by Jeffrey Page
(1 rep)
Feb 9, 2024, 05:37 PM