Did Jesus die only for the Church in the Governmental theory of atonement?
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I was just reading the [*Wikipedia* article about it](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Governmental_theory_of_atonement) and one of its characteristics is:
> **Unlimited scope of the substitution**: According to governmental theory, Christ's death applies not to individuals directly, but to the Church as a corporate entity. In other words, Christ did not make a one-to-one substitution, but a general substitution. In this view, Christ's substitution can also be considered to be infinite, so that God could apply the substitution to an arbitrary, not pre-determined number of individuals and to their sins.
It seems to say that Jesus died only for the Church as a general group. **What does death applies to the Church mean here**?
Asked by baggypants_onsale
(81 rep)
Feb 4, 2024, 08:28 AM
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Last activity: Feb 7, 2024, 11:04 PM